Have certain spiritual gifts ceased? If so when? What are the arguments for both sides? These are some questions that have been raised as my wife and I have studied this subject with some friends. I entered this study as a staunch cessationist. Why was I a cessationist? Well, it was what I was taught, by very capable men who belong to the same denomination to which we belong. That should be good enough, right? I wanted to know for myself if the gifts were for today and not rely on just what someone else says and be glad with that. The fact is maybe, just maybe in the past I was too lazy to study what obviously is a complex subject. I kept going back to when I thought that the doctrines of grace were heretical. I was told by our old pastor that Calvinistic doctrine was of the devil. So, as I began to pray and study for myself to see if this was true. I was amazed at what the Holy Spirit had revealed to me as I studied his Word. My pastor at that time was wrong. The doctrines of grace are all over scripture. I now know it to be the Truth of Scripture.
Could my view of certain gifts ending with the apostles be similar to the view of Calvinistic theology I used to hold to? The fact that these more learned men know way more than me, and that should be good enough, right? I have seen the cessationist arguments of the likes of John MacArthur and others. I have also seen the arguments of continuationist of Wayne Grudem and others. So, where am I now, hmmm. I find myself drifting away from, all though "very cautiously" at this point, from my cessationist position. One thing jumps out to me in MacArthurs arguments against tongues. On page 285 of his book Charismatic Chaos he notes a Scottish Presbyterian by the name of Edward Irving. At this point in the book he is arguing his case that tongues have ceased using the history of the church and its abuse of this non existent gift as an example. What strikes me here is that he is using Edward Irving. Now, if he is going to use the abuse through history as a measuring stick for proof or evidence, shouldn't he use that same criteria to judge an issue that is much more important, such as dispensational theology as opposed to covenental theology. Edward Irving may have held to a dispensational framework before J.N. Darby. Darby is credited with developing dispensationalism and the pretrib rapture view. But it can be argued that Darby got it from some type of relationship with Irving. More interesting is the fact that no one for 1,900 years held this pretrib rapture view before Irving and Darby made it mainstream. I just wanted to show that MacArthurs own use of history, since that is one of the guides he uses to judge truth from error can be used to refute a far more greater issue than tongues. I am not saying that I disagree with MacArthur. It just struck me as I read his book Charismatic Chaos.
Keeping in mind; 2 Timothy 3:16
So, has certain gifts ceased to exist? Which ones?
A.W. Tozer
In view of much of today's dispensational teaching about Bible interpretation, the apostles, miracles of God and the fullness of the Spirit, I must remind you that the Lord Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today and forever. That allows me to tell you something blessed and heartening that I have found to be true and that I will stand by till the end of time.
This is my finding: There is nothing that Jesus has ever done for any of His disciples that he will not do for any other of His disciples.
Where did the "dividers-of -the-Word - of Truth"get their teaching that all the gifts of the Spirit ended when the last apostle died? They have never furnished chapter and verse for that. When some men beat the cover off their Bible to demonstrate how they stand by the Word of God, they should be reminded that they are only standing by their own interpretation of the Word.
I do not agree with all of what Tozer writes or says, but this quote, I thought was important. I am not sure where I will wind up on this issue. But it has been really enjoyable so far
To God be The Glory,
Nolan
Could my view of certain gifts ending with the apostles be similar to the view of Calvinistic theology I used to hold to? The fact that these more learned men know way more than me, and that should be good enough, right? I have seen the cessationist arguments of the likes of John MacArthur and others. I have also seen the arguments of continuationist of Wayne Grudem and others. So, where am I now, hmmm. I find myself drifting away from, all though "very cautiously" at this point, from my cessationist position. One thing jumps out to me in MacArthurs arguments against tongues. On page 285 of his book Charismatic Chaos he notes a Scottish Presbyterian by the name of Edward Irving. At this point in the book he is arguing his case that tongues have ceased using the history of the church and its abuse of this non existent gift as an example. What strikes me here is that he is using Edward Irving. Now, if he is going to use the abuse through history as a measuring stick for proof or evidence, shouldn't he use that same criteria to judge an issue that is much more important, such as dispensational theology as opposed to covenental theology. Edward Irving may have held to a dispensational framework before J.N. Darby. Darby is credited with developing dispensationalism and the pretrib rapture view. But it can be argued that Darby got it from some type of relationship with Irving. More interesting is the fact that no one for 1,900 years held this pretrib rapture view before Irving and Darby made it mainstream. I just wanted to show that MacArthurs own use of history, since that is one of the guides he uses to judge truth from error can be used to refute a far more greater issue than tongues. I am not saying that I disagree with MacArthur. It just struck me as I read his book Charismatic Chaos.
Keeping in mind; 2 Timothy 3:16
So, has certain gifts ceased to exist? Which ones?
A.W. Tozer
In view of much of today's dispensational teaching about Bible interpretation, the apostles, miracles of God and the fullness of the Spirit, I must remind you that the Lord Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today and forever. That allows me to tell you something blessed and heartening that I have found to be true and that I will stand by till the end of time.
This is my finding: There is nothing that Jesus has ever done for any of His disciples that he will not do for any other of His disciples.
Where did the "dividers-of -the-Word - of Truth"get their teaching that all the gifts of the Spirit ended when the last apostle died? They have never furnished chapter and verse for that. When some men beat the cover off their Bible to demonstrate how they stand by the Word of God, they should be reminded that they are only standing by their own interpretation of the Word.
I do not agree with all of what Tozer writes or says, but this quote, I thought was important. I am not sure where I will wind up on this issue. But it has been really enjoyable so far
To God be The Glory,
Nolan
Suggestion: Do a cursory study on the the reason and context for God's intervention in history with signs, wonders, miracles from Genesis to Revelation.
ReplyDeleteKeep these questions in mind:
Do miracles primarily occur in the general context of belief or unbelief?
Are signs, wonders and miracles generally an indication of blessing or judgment?
What does the Bible's general tenor concerning signs and wonders fit the general tenor of present-day continuationist theology and practice?
Also, study Joel's prophecy, as referred to in Acts 2 in the context of the apostle's speaking in tongues. What is coming - judgment or blessing?
Then look at Paul's reference to unknown tongues as a sign to unbelievers in 1 Corinthians 14. To what is the OT quote referring - judgment or blessing?
Just some thoughts.
Dave James
The Alliance for Biblical Integrity
Sorry for the typos - I should have been more careful.
ReplyDeleteYou might enjoy googling "The Newest Pretrib Calendar," "Edward Irving is Unnerving," and "Pretrib Rapture Dishonesty" - all by journalist/historian Dave MacPherson, author of "The Rapture Plot" (see Armageddon Books online), the most documented and shocking work on the history of the pretribulation rapture view.
ReplyDeleteDave,
ReplyDeleteThanks for the suggestions. I have and will continue to study those issues more. I plan next to read the commentary put out by D.A Carson on chapters 12-14 of 1 Corinthians, suggested by C.J. Mahaney. I want to be very careful not to jump to any premature decisions.
Mary,
Thanks, I will check it out. That is another doctrine that I had always thought to be correct because of its wide spread teaching.
Here is where I am right now and this is open to change.....I do not see in scripture where the gift of tongues ends before the perfect comes....the abuse of gifts in the church does not mean the gifts are not real and active...I hear questions that ask why would tongues be needed? I dont know...but God gave them as a gift....I hear, why is it only people in certain churches?....I dont know..but God gave the gift....I know that the gift is not given to all...not all have the same gift but it is the same Spirit...could it be that people with the legitamate gift of tongues may feel more comfortable with a body of believers that do not tell them that the gift they have doesnt even exist? Maybe its better in their minds to be in a place that acknowledges their gift but may have some that abuse the gifts than to be in a place where their gift cannot even be spoken of as real and active....is that right? I dont know but it would explain why the majority of people speaking in tongues belong to certain denominations as opposed to others....I read the verses in 1 Corinthians 13: 8-12 speaking of the gifts ending and I ask: does the fact that vs 9 doesnt specify tongues as being in part (we know in part and prophesy in part) mean that they will cease before the perfect comes? Vs 8 says they will cease, vs 10 says it will happen when the perfect comes....but vs 9 says we do things in part and that is what will be done away with...the partial...does that include tongues? so...vs8 tongues will cease, vs 9 we know in part..vs10 what we know in part will cease when the perfect comes.....do that include the tongues of verse 8...if I have confused you then I apologize....I know exactly what I am asking...maybe Nolan can interpret..LOL.....
ReplyDelete